Andrew’s post made me laugh out loud! this is a common occurrence now I’m an old git.
I would quibble with Shakespeare’s use of the word “infinity”. He is obviously unfamiliar with Cantor’s work on the subject. Expecting familiarity would be anachronistic since Shakespeare was two centuries earlier. There again the bard was sometimes chronologically challenged in his works.
Will stop rambling on now since re-reading this makes me realise that it is a lot of pretentious drivel. Please bear with me.
Loch
